The Free- will Pelagians call it ‘fate’; we call it ‘grace’
I was carefully meditating about why the Pelagians think they have a trump card when they accuse us of teaching ‘fate’ under the name of grace. So I first of all looked into their statements on the matter. They thought they could bring this objection against us: ‘Under the name of grace, they teach fate, for they say that unless God inspired an unwilling and resisting person with the desire for good (even an imperfect good), he would not be able to cease from evil, nor to embrace good.’ Then a little later, they assert their own beliefs, which I also examined: ‘We confess that baptism is necessary for all ages, and that grace assists the good resolutions of everybody. But grace does not infuse the love of virtue into a reluctant soul, because there is no favouritism with
God.’
God.’
From these words of theirs, I perceived that the Pelagians think (or wish others to think) that we ‘teach fate under the name of grace’ merely because we say that God’s grace is not given in respect of our virtues, but according to God’s own most merciful will. For He said, ‘I will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and will show mercy to whom I will show mercy’ (Rom.9:15). And by way of consequence, Scripture adds, ‘Therefore it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God Who shows mercy’ (Rom.9:16). Here, anyone might be equally foolish in thinking or saying that the apostle teaches fate! But these Pelagians sufficiently lay themselves open to accusation. For when they slander us by saying that we ‘maintain fate under the name of grace’, because we say that God’s grace is not given on account of our virtues, beyond a doubt they confess that they themselves say that grace is given on account of our virtues!
Against Two Letters of the Pelagians, 2:10
Paul refers in Romans 9:15 to a passage in Exodus which he quotes as "I will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and will show mercy to whom I will show mercy" and pretends that this passage has something to do with salvation. Yet it does not. The context is where Moses has asked to see God's glory. And to justify showing it (part of it anyway) to Moses, God makes this statement. Yet, actually, Paul has translated the words somewhat backwards. Paul has the first word as "gracious" whereas this should be the second, and the second he has as "merciful" whereas "kind" is a better translation. This was a special kindness and grace (i.e. favor) that he showed Moses in allowing him to see his glory (or the backside of his glory) which he showed to no other, and for this reason He says "I will show [this] kindness to whom I will show [this] kindness, and I will show [this] grace to whom I will show [this] grace." The context has nothing to do with saving or not saving anyone. Paul is twisting. (I will let you find it for yourself, unless you are too lazy to take the Borean challenge, you know to check if Paul's Old Testament quotations are really so as the Boreans did.) This is another example of Paul's twisting of the Old Testament I mentioned in my other comment here) His epistle to the Romans is replete with this sort of thing.
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